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| Question | Answer |
| List six roles of EMD. | Telephone InterrogatorDispatch Life Support Instruction ProviderResource Allocator Logistics Coordinator Field Communicator Life Impactor |
| List four call processing objectives | Safety System Response Patient CareInformation for Responders |
| List five benefits of structured call taking and protocol use. | Established Standard of Service Prioritized ResponsesQuality Improvement ProceduresCertification and Accreditation Reduced Exposure to Liability |
| All actual response assignments and emergency modes are: | Predetermined by local Medical Control and EMA Administration |
| Medical professionals and communications experts from around the world contribute to the ongoing development of the MPDS. | True |
| Which of the following best describes the difference between certification and accreditation? | Individuals are certified and agencies are accredited. |
| When chief complaint description is seizure go to protocol 12 regardless of consciousness and breathing status. True or false? | True |
| When automatic callback number information is incorrect or unavailable, the Academy recommends that EMDs verify the address and callback number by asking the caller to repeat the information. True or false? | True |
| What are the Four Commandments of EMD? | Chief complaint AgeStatus of consciousness Status of breathing |
| What are the four priority symptoms? | Level of consciousness Breathing Chest pain Serious hemorrhage |
| Ground level falls caused by fainting, or dizziness should be handled on Protocol 31? True or false? | True |
| Sudden non- traumatic vision problems should be handled on Protocol 28 for Stroke. True or false? | True |
| Severe thermal burns to the eye almost always affect the face or head and should be handled on Protocol 7 for burns. True or false? | True |
| If the complaint description involves hazardous materials that pose a threat to bystanders or responders, go to Protocol 8 for Hazmat. True or false? | True |
| Recreational inhalations of potentially harmful substances should be handled on Protocol 23 for overdose/Poisoning. True or false? | True |
| When the complaint description is breathing-related tracheostomy problems in the conscious patient, go to Protocol 31 for unconscious. True or false? | False Go to Protocol 6 for Breathing Problems |
| Because a patient has a problem in a hot or cold environment means the problem was caused by the environment. True or false? | False Heat or cold extremes may trigger other medical problems. |
| A complaint of Postpartum hemorrhage should be handled on what Protocol? | Hemorrhage/ Lacerations |
| When is it necessary to handle a pregnant patients issue who have illness as the primary complaint on a Protocol other than 26 for Sick Persons? | When the problem concerns vagin*l bleeding, labor, miscarriage or waters broken. |
| If the actual type of suicide attempt is determined to be overdose, carbon monoxide, stab, or gunshot wound go to and dispatch from that more specific protocol. True or false? | True |
| Should the complaint of sickle cell or thalassemia be handled on Protocol 26 for sick person? Yes or no? | Yes |
| The complaint of autonomic dysreflexia/hyperreflexia should not be handled on Protocol 26 for sick person? True or false? | False It should be handled on Protocol 26 for sick person. |
| The MPDS symbol with the arrow directs the EMD to:A Go to PDIs, then DLS links B send and go to PDIsC send, PDIs and return to questioningD send and return to questioning | C send, PDIs and return to questioning |
| A question with a pre- question qualifier should always be asked? | No only when the caller reports that the patient fits the criteria. |
| Key questions must be asked in order and as written? True or false? | True |
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FAQs
The dispatcher is the first person to gather clues and cues about an emergency. An experienced, well-trained dispatcher is able to gather a lot of high quality, vitally important information that can help first responders form an early understanding of what they will be facing upon arrival at the emergency scene.
Is defined as negligent conduct that was not purposeful or caused by malicious intent? ›
simple negligence correct answerIs defined as negligent conduct that was not purposeful or caused by "malicious intent"
What is the difference between response mode and response configuration? ›
The proper configuration refers to the type, capability, and number of response vehicles, while the mode refers to the appropriate driving technique (such as lights and sirens). Pre-arrival instructions.
Which of the following is the best definition for cervical cerclage in EMD? ›
A cervical cerclage is a treatment that involves temporarily sewing the cervix closed with stitches. This may help the cervix hold a pregnancy in the uterus. A cerclage is done in the second trimester of pregnancy to prevent preterm birth.
What is the single most important skill a dispatcher should have? ›
Communication Is Key in Dispatcher Training
In order to get drivers and goods where they need to go, dispatchers should have excellent communication skills, which you can build upon during your dispatcher training.
What is one of the primary tasks of an EMS dispatcher? ›
Answer all incoming calls from the general public and/or emergency 911 promptly and appropriately and assist all callers in a calm, courteous and professional manner. When multiple telephone calls are received, service & transfer them according to priority.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMD? ›
The responsibility that is NOT generally held by an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) is B. Providing medical direction to the responding units. Emergency Medical Dispatchers are tasked with prioritizing incoming calls, coordinating with public safety agencies, and giving emergency instructions to callers.
How often must an APCO EMD recertify? ›
Recertification Requirements:
APCO certified EMDs must provide proof every two years of 24 hours (12 hours per certification year) of Continuing Dispatch Education (CDE).
What is the difference between intentional and negligent conduct? ›
The primary difference in tort law between an intentional tort and negligence is that an intentional tort occurs when someone acts on purpose, while negligence happens when someone isn't careful enough to fulfill the necessary standard of care.
What are the four priority symptoms of EMD? ›
In order to use the system, Emergency Medical Dispatchers (EMDs) are trained to identify a caller's Chief Complaint, with particular attention to four priority symptoms: chest pain, alertness, breathing problems, and serioushemorrhaging. EMDs ask callers exactly what happened and actively listen to their response.
“B” (Bravo) Response: Unknown Situation, Serious bleeding/injury, pregnancy, psychiatric problems, outside gas leak, lightning strike, small outside fire. “A” (Alpha) Response: Non-life threatening situation with a likely potential for patient transport, citizen assist calls.
What does delta mean in EMS? ›
The most important part of the code is the letter. "A" or "Alpha" response is NOT life threatening. "D" Delta and "E" Echo are HIGH PRIORITY, LIFE THREATENING situations.
What foods help an incompetent cervix? ›
From squash to spinach, Providence physician Justine Bello explains the magic ingredients that can support cervical health.
- Winter squash. ...
- Pink grapefruit. ...
- Broccoli. ...
- Bell peppers. ...
- Spinach.
McDonald's Cerclage
It was originally described as follows: "The bladder having been emptied, the cervix is exposed and grasped by Allis' or Babco*ck forceps. A purse string suture of No. 4 Mersilk on a Mayo needle is inserted around the exo-cervix as high as possible to approximate to the level of the internal os.
What to avoid eating after cervical cerclage? ›
We should avoid junk foods and other eatables that may flare up the adverse effects of cervical cerclage. Sexual intercourse should abstain for a certain period of time. We must refrain from strenuous or heavy exercises. summary- We must follow the post-treatment guidelines to speed up the recovery process.
What is the Emergency Medical Dispatcher? ›
An emergency medical dispatcher is a professional telecommunicator, tasked with the gathering of information related to medical emergencies, the provision of assistance and instructions by voice, prior to the arrival of emergency medical services (EMS), and the dispatching and support of EMS resources responding to an ...
What are the duties of a dispatcher during an emergency call? ›
911 Dispatchers/Telecommunicator monitor radio frequencies, set priorities among incoming events and dispatch the police to necessary locations using both radios and computers. They keep the accurate status of the exact location of equipment and personnel by maintaining radio contact.
Why is emergency dispatch important? ›
Dispatchers assess situations quickly and coordinate effective responses. They're key for guiding callers through crises until help arrives.
What is your role in the emergency medical service? ›
EMTs and paramedics typically do the following: Respond to calls for medical assistance, such as at the scene of a car accident in which someone is injured. Assess people's condition and determine what treatment, if any, is needed. Provide treatment, such as first aid or life support care, to sick or injured patients.
